from my inbox: tongues, or prophecy?

which should i prefer—in public worship/service, that is?

 

(hmm…yeah, a rather common source of befuddlement for those of us in Christian churches, especially with the proliferation of public displays of “Spirit speaking.”  now certainly there are many other questions to be answered, i only seek to deal with the aforementioned phenomena in public worship, as i gather that Paul does in the text.  for in private, many of my Pentecostal friends have described the great utility of their “prayer language” for personal empowerment and solace.  so…)

 

  

the text (new century version): 

 

 22 so the gift of speaking in different kinds of languages is a sign for those who do not believe, not for those who do believe.  and prophecy is for people who believe, not for those who do not believe.  23 suppose the whole church meets together and everyone speaks in different languages.  if some people come in who do not understand or do not believe, they will say you are crazy.  24 but suppose everyone is prophesying and some people come in who do not believe or do not understand.  if everyone is prophesying, their sin will be shown to them, and they will be judged by all that they hear.  25 the secret things in their hearts will be made known.  so they will bow down and worship god saying, “truly, god is with you.”  (1 corinthians 14:22-25)

 

 the question:

 

so, i am reading 1 cor. 14:22-25 and i am thoroughly confused.  it says speaking in tongues is meant for the unbeliever and not for the believer.  i got that part.  then it said that prophecy is not for the unbeliever but for the believer.  i got that part too.  but then it says if an unbeliever walks in while you are speaking in tongues he will think you are crazy.  but if you prophesy he will come to confess his sins.  which unless i am reading it wrong goes against what was stated in the first part of the scripture.  so i am confused.  which is supposed to benefit the unbeliever and which is supposed to benefit the believer?  i copied the scripture below for easier access.  thanks for the help!

 

 my response:

 

well, two things: first, yeah, Paul does seem to contradict himself here and does make the text in question rather complex without scrupulous attention to what one can discern to be his aim….

 

second, though, and most importantly, understanding the issue he seeks to address in the chapter helps in interpreting the passage in question…

 

reading the chapter in its entirety, one sees that Paul is esteeming prophecy over tongues (in public worship settings, that is) because of its transformative abilities.  in other words, the crux of the argumentation says that tongues would just be like a sign for the unbeliever in these contexts (really, he’s referring to the fulfillment of prophetic literature which evinces how god confounds the understanding of the stubborn [v.21])…

 

prophesy though is for reproof, edification and “turning,” so to speak…thus, it’s much better for the unbeliever to hear prophecy instead…otherwise there is no repentance only further ostracizing by their knowledge of “never hearing” (again refer to verse 21)…

 

so when Paul says that prophecy is for believers, he’s saying then that the hearing of prophecy enables these to believe, hence salvation (an ongoing work, in my view) is possible…

 

but if they (unbelievers) only hear tongues they are forever condemned as “not listening to me [god]” (again, c.f. v.21)

 

in short, Paul often uses these dualities (believers, unbelievers — tongues, prophecy) to press his point, permitting me to paraphrase in my vernacular here: 

 

“come on people, i know u got gifts—good…spk in ur tongues if u wish…but true edification comes through prophesy (mostly forthtelling in modern times).  So prophecy is what’s best, esteem her…”

 

and maybe he’s saying: “and stop bragging and thinkin u da stuff cause u spk in a tongue…more, don’t let others make u feel less spiritual if u can’t…”

 

“the way is Love, but prophecy is better than the tongue, if u wanna compare gifts (or the execution of them in service to others (god)…”

 

“cause tongues ain’t never turn nobody around…only pushed people who ain’t been raised in the church away…cause they say, “what the ….?”

 

so again (so i’m somewhat clear here):  tongues are a sign for unbelievers, yes – in that it is a “sign” that unbelievers stand condemned, according to the Hebrew Scriptures (v. 21)….  prophecy is for believers, yes—meaning that  even if the unbeliever hears prophecy, then maybe, inferring from Paul’s argument, the unbeliever is to become a believer in our god…

 

hope this helps some…if not i’ll clarify more if needed…

 

best,

me

7 Comments

Filed under Religion, religious musings

7 Responses to from my inbox: tongues, or prophecy?

  1. I agree 100%. My problem with the more cessasionist camp is they say it is a sign for “non-believeing Jews”. I say that is not all what Paul is conveying. He is saying it is a sign for “all non-believers”. If that is not the case then every time you see the word non-believer you must insert non-believing Jew and vice versa if you see beliver it must be a believing Jew. That makes no sense in the letter or even in the chapter for that matter.

    I think one of those problems is Dispensati0nal (no offense if this is your system brother) theology forces a literal fulfillment of prophecy so they come to Isaiah and say “this must be fulfilled literally”, so when Paul takes these verses into the New Covenant and uses an Apostolic hermenuetic (which all of the Apostles plus the writer of Hebrews do with great liberality) they need the one for one correlation.

    I think this an illogical approach to this section of scripture and a phantom approach to trying to discredit the Charismatic gifts (which I am very skeptical but open to). Paul by no means is talking about non-believing Jews but all non-believers who walk into every fellowship and the word of God is veiled in some type of language not understandable by the non-believer.

  2. CVT

    hmm, quite profound indeed, brother, thanks so much for your comments…

    now i will say that i have not gone as far enough as to discredit charisma; however, i am cautious because of so much of the chicanery that’s out there and confused “saints” who believe with all their might yet end up greatly dissappointed when not seeing some of the word of faith results…

    and two, just to state: no, i’m certainly not a dispensationalist, just a critical modern brotha trying to discern how to best live…i do appreciate though your Reformed perspective as, theologically at least, i am informed by the orientation having critically studied your founders (Luther, Calvin, Zwingli and the like) at a Scottish Presbyterian seminary (lol)…

    finally, i think i’m more pragmatically inclined philisophically ; that is, i’m more concerned with resulting wholesome selves we, as believers, have become by constantly trasmuting the erroneous while keeping the cardinal…

  3. The Question is not the essence of the language,
    it is the comprehended thought of such. Who is
    speaking? Corr ch 14 verse 2. Why is he speaking? To whom is he in dialogue with? If the speaker is not delivering thought then how can he speak?
    To whom is this greater message to strengthen?
    How does it edify? To be Dispensational through grace, does not administer nor disqualify the move
    of the Holy Spirit in the Life of the believer. We argue this premiss because we attempt to align
    todays practice with the 1st century involvment
    of Gifts.

    One Luv Pastor Xerxes
    P.S. someone has to be speaking. please don’t tell me the Holy Spirit is the speaker!

  4. CVT

    hmm, Pastor, i’m not sure i follow you too well…

    first, i do think essence is important if we’re talking about public displays of this “gift” which is the basis of the my entry on the subject….becuase the essence of what is being said to those who don’t understand is precisely the problem…that essence is SO important, i’d argue, why would god not want “unbelievers” to understand, right?

    also, my attempt really is to contextualize what i would see as being an effective use of this phenomenon in a modern context, not the first century occurrence….(either in Acts or to Paul’s congregational audience)…

    as well, pls help further with your PostScript….

    is one to infer from the declaration that the Holy Spirit can’t be speaking??

    again, i’m just pressing a litter further for clarity, as i want to be sure to understand you…

  5. Pastor Xerxes

    Im glad you asked if the Holy Spirit was speaking.Cause if the Holy Spirit is, that would mean that the person is not; proving my very argument. Paul uses clear language. He that speaks, is speaking to someone! I.E. God.
    If God is speaking to Himself we have serious issues. God is not into Ventriloquism. So in the language of aglutenative Greek. You will see the proper use of the Essence of Thought. The person
    is speaking to God. 2nd your right; why would God not want “unbelievers” to understand, right? That would be okay if the phenomenon of Acts was for
    A. Edification?
    wrong because this was fullfiled prophecy.
    B. Discipline?
    Possible why because of the comming condemnation! maybe.
    C. Warning?
    Could it be, to those on the fence of Judaisim.
    D. Growth?
    I dont see it in the book of Acts.
    E. Mystery?
    No Peter Explained that, as he spoke men of Jeruselem.
    F. Miracle?
    No thats what they were waiting for POWER FROM ON HIGH. So what is Paul getting at? Is there 2 completely different ideas for the phenomenon. Paul does not argue that, neither does Scripture. So in 1Corr 14 what is the big idea.
    His Argument cant be edification: when it is condemnation in nature Acts Ch2. Nor can it be the reverse, if edification is for the saints. Then why would this practice be for the un saved? Dilema- We know that the natural man cannot understand the things of God! Right. So why would a practice of Edificational Tongues work for a Dead man! It wouldn’t – other than for conviction, And who would be convicted – those that already knew the Torah. The New Testament texts are not in circulation, only oral practice. So the Jewish community understood totally besides writing came in around 51 A.D. So it could be the Pauline argument that practice of the gifts were not only for the total grace dispendsation; but also that it would be segmentary, through stages, We only have 1 group of Apostles, with the proper qualifications. There are only 12 for the whole grace period. This thing we call the 69th Week of Daniel. So I would think that the phenomenon practiced here, is an incorrect, practice the same way, the practice today is an incorrect practice.

    Food for Thought :::::::
    What if in 1Corr ch14 verse 2 the person is deaf.
    How would a Deaf mute have a private prayer language i.e. tongues: knowing that his congnitivity is sign language? Would he speak to
    to God in fingers? Knowing that we were made with an
    1. Emotion
    2. Will
    3. Intelect

    If his Intelect is Sign language then How do we
    reconcile the two?

    I like your questions.
    One love Pastor Xerxes

  6. CVT

    hum, been away; out of town for a while Pas, but shall certainly come back to this…

    one luv,
    CVT

  7. Somehow i missed the point. Probably lost in translation :) Anyway … nice blog to visit.

    cheers, Dizzying.

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